The notion that placing the Master Sword to rest would prevent any other form of time manipulation is nothing short of ludicrous. Especially since we see it in MM. What Zelda says is nothing more than that the Master Sword will no longer be used to travel forward in time. The lines you quoted even support this, since they only mention the Master Sword and not other items that can control time, such as the Ocarina of Time.
Majora's Mask can theoretically be cast aside as to being an alternate dimension, because if the moon was haunting Hyrule as it was Termina, Link certainly would not be going off in search of a friend. Alternatively speaking, this quote could also be granted with the implicit constraint that this will close all time travel of which Zelda is aware. After all, we cannot expect her to make judgements about issues she would not have knowledge, and Labrynna is not discovered until many years later by our best reckoning.
You were the one who said I should prove my own theory.
You believed there was relevance at the time. I thought I'd let you have the opportunity to show it.
You tell me. I asked for your evidence, remember? I already provided mine. Some five-six quotes if I recall...
Your evidence is taken out of context.
SHEIK, IN LINK'S FIRST MEETING WITH HIM IN THE TEMPLE OF TIME:
I've been waiting for you, Hero of Time...
When evil rules all, an awakening voice from the Sacred Realm will call those destined to be Sages, who dwell in the five temples.
One in a deep forest...
One on a high mountain...
One under a vast lake...
One within the house of the dead...
One inside a goddess of the sand...
Together with the Hero of Time, the awakened ones will bind the evil and return the light of peace to the world...
This is the legend of the temples passed down by my people, the Sheikah. (emphasis mine)
Question: Is Rauru not a Sage? He certainly didn't dwell in one of the
five temples? How do you know he's a sage? This
legend certainly doesn't mention anything about that? Huh huh huh? This sounds like a contradiction! Gasp!... Yet it's not. You and I both know it's not... because Rauru is a Sage in a different way... yet the same way. He's not in one of the five temples, but he's still just like the other five. So what do we do with this? We declare it to be exactly what Sheik says, a legend. Everything in this quote is legend; it happens to be an accurate legend in so far as the five are concerned, but a legend nevertheless.
Impa's quote does not explicitly tell a difference between the six and the seventh. She mentions what the six sages will do, which is inevitably what happens. This does not say that Zelda has abilities different than the six; this says that her
purpose is different than the six... and that she has the Triforce of Wisdom and thusly is the seventh (a fact that is not necessarily true with LttP, but again, that's irrelevant to this discussion). The same can be extended to the remaining quotes by Sheik/Zelda. The sole difference declared is that Zelda as the seventh leads the other six; that doesn't declare that she has a different ability set. She has a different role to play, this much I will buy. You have shown evidence to that point.
But what evidence do you have to show that Saria or Nabooru or Rauru could not be standing there in the endgame in Zelda's spot playing the Ocarina of Time to whisk Link back seven years? Zelda alludes to the fact that her abilities stem from the fact that she is a Sage, not because of her Triforce. So far, I see no overt contradiction or alternate theory specified strictly by the words as spoken. Where now, brown cow?
The Master Sword is still not a ship, so strict canon would have us accept that it is a metaphor. You never objected to personal interpretation and assumptions when providing support for your theory, and this is really no different. If you suddenly wish to take everything at face value, well, then there goes your entire proof-lacking argument.
I will grant you that "The Master Sword is a ship" is a metaphor. However, metaphor doesn't write off the rest of the sentence, however. Even with metaphor, there is some semblance of equality inherent, and calling it a metaphor doesn't just make the whole sentence trash. If a ship could sail through time--past, present, and future--then the Master Sword must be like that, something that can travel through time--past, present, and future. This much is not metaphor.
Fine. As I said before, even if you want to ignore the obvious and assume the illogical, doesn’t matter. As long as a theory for how OoT works exists, there is no inconsistency within OoT.
Let's be frank as to what assumption I'm referring to; it's not an illogical one, I'm afraid. My assumption is the means I used to come to the conclusion, that strict canon is the most valid way to construct a timeline theory. There's no assumptions beyond that that I am making. You can call the assumption incorrect if you want (which is what I'm hoping people inevitably decide upon), but you cannot call that assumption illogical just because it yields an unwanted result. After all, at one time, it was the
de facto assumption.
Again, Fine. You can assume anything you like about how things happen in OoT, even if they make no logical sense and clearly go against obvious inference. Still, the fact remains that all that’s needed is a theory that works with OoT for OoT to be consistent.
To show that OoT is consistent given some set of assumptions X, you're correct, you must show that some theory works given some set of assumptions X.
As I said before, logic would indicate an external force had to be used. The fact that there is a song being taught that neither Link nor the windmill man know is proof of that. However, for what ever reason, you’re refusing to accept this concept by assuming the creators had a different and illogical reasoning instead – even though it’s never been inferred nor shown in the canon.
I’m using a logical implication, whilst you are using an assumption.
Inferred Logic > Random Assumption
Show evidence, please, that backs up your claim that an external force was involved.
Definition: Ockham’s Razor states that all things being equal, the simplest solution tends to be the best one. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Occam's_Razor
The key point to note is that Ockham’s Razor is about the simplest solution of how something works. Therefore, it is not enough to have the fewest number of assumptions alone.
Occam's Razor is merely my "abbreviation" for strict canon in this case. My rules for what I refer to strict canon boil down to
approximately Occam's Razor, and so I use the terms almost interchangeably so as not to confuse (since I've already done so with my definition of strict canon). However, if you'd prefer, I'll use my term with you. So, to start off with a clean slate, here are the rules:
(1) If something is declared to happen in the game, it happens exactly as written; if something is declared in the game, it must be true.
(2) If something is alluded to in the game but is not explicitly proven to be true, it may be assumed true unless the game alludes to the potentiality of an alternate assumption.
(3) If something is not explicitly declared or alluded to by the game, it cannot be assumed.
(4) If two facts are in contradiction with one another, then the whole game is in contradiction with itself.
(5) A valid timeline under the above rules may not be presumed to exist.
Corollary (6): (3) may not be used to work around (4).
However, ignoring all of the above, keep in mind one thing. Even if your article has reasoning for why you prefer no solution to a solution, remember at least that there is a solution. Now, even if the fact that there is a solution doesn’t disprove your theory, then by implication, your theory doesn’t disprove OoT being consistent.
Let me declare it first and foremost: "No timeline" is a valid solution just the same. By (5), we cannot assume that one exists as a precondition to our conversation; that would be circular logic.
N.B: Contradicting the canon is different to using assumptions (I point this out with the maths you used in your last post).
See Rule (2); if I can show that something is alluded to, even if it is not proven, and the game shows evidence for nothing else, then it becomes "as good as" canon under assumption. So use this carefully.

No. That’s not comparable to assuming something that works with the canon. That is the same as assuming something that goes against the canon. Since your assumption is wrong to start with, to show an incorrect result afterwards is inevitable and pointless.
I’m not saying one should assume something that is definitely wrong and against the canon, but assume something that could be true.
e.g. Canon: We are told that (4 + A) = 6 where A can be any positive number.
Assumption: A = 2, (4 + 2) = 6 (the right answer). The fact that we can get a right answer means the equation (4 + A = 6) does not contradict itself and is possible.
Well, technically, if you read my asterisked comment at the end of my reply, it is a meaningful proof... in some circumstances. However, disregarding that, the proof structures are still identical because all proofs inherently boil down to logic. Let me demonstrate for you the similarity. Consider the following proof outline:
Proof: Assume P is true. Because of some set of laws and truths, Q is true. Thus, P implies Q, or mathematically P -> QNow, this statement P -> Q is defined by a truth table. P and Q can be either true or false, and depending upon their values, P -> Q gets some assigned value:
If P is true, and Q is true, then P -> Q is true.
If P is true, and Q is false, then P -> Q is false.
If P is false, and Q is true, then P -> Q is true.
If P is false, and Q is false, then P -> Q is true.
As a result, whenever I assume anything and then show some conclusion, regardless of the assumption and conclusion, one of two cases must exist: (1) The conclusion is true if the assumption is true, or (2) the assumption is false. So it works with my article. I made an assumption (strict canon) and showed some conclusion (no timeline). Such is the nature of all proofs (unless an equivalence chain can be established at every step.)
But let me answer your claim of mathematics. What if the mathematical canon question was find
x for the equation
x³ = 1? Now, any good mathematician knows that there are
three answers to this question. There is the obvious answer
x = 1; this is the trivial solution for any
x^
n = 1 solution, and so let us consider that to be the trivial solution of the canon question that there is no timeline. Yet we know that there are two other solutions as well: sqrt(3)/2 ±
i/2. Consider these two be two (or even one) other solution to the canon question.
Now, let's say I represent the imaginary axis as fanon, the amount of stuff that is made up. And then by strict canon, I make the ruling that all answers must be real. All of a sudden, I've disallowed both of your answers. At this point, you have a choice: Assume that I am correct, or choose to invalidate the restriction. The choice... is yours.

The challenge, of course, is to find a real, non-trivial solution to the problem... and that isn't guaranteed to exist.

Aim: To find a way that OoT is consistent with as few assumptions as possible.
Outcomes: If a way exists within the bounds of canon, your theory doesn’t work. If a way doesn’t exist within the bounds of canon, your theory does work.
Conclusion: I found a way it does works. Therefore, your theory that it doesn’t work is incorrect.
Correction:
Aim: To find a way that OoT is consistent with
no assumptions. Until you reach that benchmark, you cannot disprove my handiwork.

Now I understand that you want to use only canon, but even in your own logic you are using assumptions. Even if you deny you are using assumptions, you’re not getting away from the simple fact that OoT is consistent without contradicting the canon.
I don't deny using assumptions. If I weren't using assumptions, as I've already said,
someone here would have already found the timeline solution years ago. That's where the critical assumption--the opening assumption--kicks in. I can assume anything if the game alludes to it and does not allude to any other possibility. In short, I can take logical leaps of faith so long as the game doesn't offer two unique leaps of faith at the same time. The assumption compensates for my inability to prove. All I need to show is some evidence, take the leap, and be confident that I didn't miss another possibility.
As I said before, logical induction is the proof for my theory. However, if you want to play that game, prove to me that the timeloop doesn’t require an external force to work without using any assumptions. Again, not that it matters to the greater scheme of things.
The evidence converts to proof via the assumption and Rule (2).
Again, it may fail your assumption (which ever they may be), but that doesn’t matter in the greater scheme of things. At the end of the day, proving or disproving your theory is not what’s important. Finding out if OoT is consistent using canon is.
Ocarina can be consistent, but that doesn't mean it is consistent at all levels of canon interpretation. As the slider moves from 100% canon to 0% canon, the game becomes more consistent by nature. The critical question is not whether or not
Ocarina is consistent; the question is whether or not it is consistent when viewed at from the highest level of canon possible.
Unless he plays the OoT and opens the DoT, but doesn’t lift the MS. Again, doesn’t matter as I have a second point
Again, the Door of Time is never opened at any point in the game. Go ahead, turn on your N64 cartridge and don't head to the princess; instead go to the Temple of Time. And sit. And wait. The Door of Time doesn't open; therefore, Link didn't come out.
Strict canon doesn’t out rule this. What I said still works with the canon. You are assuming that Link kept the OoT, I’m assuming he didn’t.
Irrelevant by above. Checking the Door of Time at
any point in the game until the moment will show that it's closed, and it doesn't take a rocket scientist to determine that this is the result of game engine logic. So no.
As you can see from the game itself, Link DOES run around for a few weeks as a child after he had lifted the MS. According to your idea of Rauru or the MS locking Child Link up from the point he touches the MS, we should not be able to play as Child Link. That is proof that Link isn’t locked up for all of 7 years from the day he lifted the MS up.
No, no... don't be so bold as to consider this proof.

Obviously at this point, some spirit is controlling Link. But the Master Sword put Link's spirit into the Sacred Realm by Rauru's words. Since Link seems to be aware of future events in the child portion of the latter half of the game, the spirit inhabiting Link's body is the "adult spirit." Therefore, Link's spirit cannot be presumed to be with him. Since Rauru specifies that "child Link's" spirit was locked up for seven years because of the drawing of the Master Sword, the game alludes to the fact that Link's spirit did not leave the temple during this time but was indeed locked up. This by (2) can be assumed to be fact, thus showing that the autopilot Link theory is not supported by canon by Rule (3). QED.
All of this is getting rather pointless and tiresome. My only point is that by following the canon without contradiction still generates a consistent OoT. Therefore, Canon can be followed without exception (with the aid of assumptions which are present in all theories). If this doesn’t disprove your theory, I don’t care.
That's fine. You don't have to agree. But no matter what, you're still adding your own assumptions to your timeline, which is what I truly want people to do in the long run.

So in effect, you already agree, and my work is done.
Edited by Showsni, 10 February 2007 - 12:14 PM.